[Dec-2025] Latest CAS-004 Exam Dumps for Pass Guaranteed [Q89-Q105]

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[Dec-2025] Latest CAS-004 Exam Dumps for Pass Guaranteed

Reliable CompTIA CASP CAS-004 Dumps PDF Dec 05, 2025 Recently Updated Questions


To prepare for the CASP+ exam, candidates should have a deep understanding of cybersecurity principles and best practices. They should also have experience in implementing secure solutions across a variety of enterprise environments. Candidates can prepare for the exam through self-study, online courses, or in-person training programs.

 

NEW QUESTION # 89
An organization is deploying a new, online digital bank and needs to ensure availability and performance. The cloud-based architecture is deployed using PaaS and SaaS solutions, and it was designed with the following considerations:
- Protection from DoS attacks against its infrastructure and web
applications is in place.
- Highly available and distributed DNS is implemented.
- Static content is cached in the CDN.
- A WAF is deployed inline and is in block mode.
- Multiple public clouds are utilized in an active-passive
architecture.
With the above controls in place, the bank is experiencing a slowdown on the unauthenticated payments page. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

  • A. A DDoS attack is targeted at the CDN.
  • B. The API gateway endpoints are being directly targeted.
  • C. The public cloud provider is applying QoS to the inbound customer traffic.
  • D. The site is experiencing a brute-force credential attack.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 90
A creative services firm has a limited security budget and staff.
Due to its business model, the company sends and receives a high volume of files every day through the preferred method defined by its customers.
These include email, secure file transfers, and various cloud service providers.
Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of malware infection while meeting the company's resource requirements and maintaining its current workflow?

  • A. Configure a network-based intrusion prevention system
  • B. Enable customers to send and receive files via SFTP
  • C. Implement appropriate DLP systems with strict policies.
  • D. Contract a cloud-based sandbox security service.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 91
An organization is assessing the security posture of a new SaaS CRM system that handles sensitive PI I and identity information, such as passport numbers. The SaaS CRM system does not meet the organization's current security standards. The assessment identifies the following:
1) There will be a 520,000 per day revenue loss for each day the system is delayed going into production.
2) The inherent risk is high.
3) The residual risk is low.
4) There will be a staged deployment to the solution rollout to the contact center.
Which of the following risk-handling techniques will BEST meet the organization's requirements?

  • A. Avoid the risk by accepting the shared responsibility model with the SaaS CRM provider.
  • B. Transfer the risk to the SaaS CRM vendor, as the organization is using a cloud service.
  • C. Apply for a security exemption, as the risk is too high to accept.
  • D. Accept the risk, as compensating controls have been implemented to manage the risk.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 92
A Chief information Security Officer (CISO) is developing corrective-action plans based on the following from a vulnerability scan of internal hosts:

Which of the following MOST appropriate corrective action to document for this finding?

  • A. The product owner should perform a business impact assessment regarding the ability to implement a WAF.
  • B. The application developer should use a static code analysis tool to ensure any application code is not vulnerable to buffer overflows.
  • C. The system administrator should evaluate dependencies and perform upgrade as necessary.
  • D. The security operations center should develop a custom IDS rule to prevent attacks buffer overflows against this server.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 93
A company was recently infected by malware. During the root cause analysis, the company determined that several users were installing their own applications.
To prevent further compromises, the company has decided it will only allow authorized applications to run on its systems. Which of the following should the company implement?

  • A. Signing
  • B. Access control
  • C. Permit listing
  • D. HIPS

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 94
A vulnerability scanner detected an obsolete version of an open-source file-sharing application on one of a company's Linux servers. While the software version is no longer supported by the OSS community, the company's Linux vendor backported fixes, applied them for all current vulnerabilities, and agrees to support the software in the future.
Based on this agreement, this finding is BEST categorized as a:

  • A. false negative.
  • B. true negative.
  • C. true positive.
  • D. false positive.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A true positive is a finding that is confirmed as a valid vulnerability. In this case, the vulnerability was identified and then patched and supported by the Linux vendor, making it a true positive.


NEW QUESTION # 95
A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.
Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

  • A. Execute never
  • B. No-execute
  • C. Virtual memory encryption
  • D. Total memory encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified Reference:
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never
https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture-VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching


NEW QUESTION # 96
A security analyst is investigating a possible buffer overflow attack. The following output was found on a user's workstation:
graphic.linux_randomization.prg
Which of the following technologies would mitigate the manipulation of memory segments?

  • A. NX bit
  • B. ASLR
  • C. DEP
  • D. HSM

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr
ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide


NEW QUESTION # 97
A company performs an annual attack surface analysis and identifies a large number of unexpected, external-facing systems. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wishes to ensure this issue does not reoccur. Which of the following should the company do?

  • A. Update the company's risk profile.
  • B. Continuously monitor key risk indicators.
  • C. Reduce the costs associated with performing risk assessments.
  • D. Minimize errors in the risk assessment metrics.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Option C (Continuously monitor key risk indicators):Continuously monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) ensures real-time visibility of changes in the attack surface, allowing for prompt identification of unexpected systems and minimizing risk.
Option A (Update the risk profile):Updating the risk profile reflects current risks but does not actively prevent the reoccurrence of unexpected systems.
Option B (Minimize errors in metrics):Reducing errors in metrics is useful for accuracy but does not directly address attack surface management.
Option D (Reduce assessment costs):Reducing costs does not mitigate or prevent the reoccurrence of external-facing systems.
Reference:
CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 1.4:Conduct ongoing monitoring of the attack surface and risk indicators.
CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 2, Risk Management and Continuous Monitoring.


NEW QUESTION # 98
A company has decided to purchase a license for software that is used to operate a mission-critical process.
The third-party developer is new to the industry but is delivering what the company needs at this time.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application?

  • A. The company will be able to force the third-party developer to continue support.
  • B. The company will be paid by the third-party developer to hire a new development team.
  • C. The company will be able to manage the third-party developer's development process.
  • D. The company will have access to the latest version to continue development.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 99
A security analyst is investigating a series of suspicious emails by employees to the security team. The email appear to come from a current business partner and do not contain images or URLs. No images or URLs were stripped from the message by the security tools the company uses instead, the emails only include the following in plain text.

Which of the following should the security analyst perform?

  • A. Pull the devices of the affected employees from the network in case they are infected with a zero-day virus.
  • B. Contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event.
  • C. Block the IP address for the business partner at the perimeter firewall.
  • D. Configure the email gateway to automatically quarantine all messages originating from the business partner.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best option for the security analyst to perform is to contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event. The email appears to be a phishing attempt that tries to trick the employees into revealing their login credentials by impersonating a legitimate sender. The security department at the business partner should be notified so they can investigate the source and scope of the attack and take appropriate actions to protect their systems and users. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training
/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-014


NEW QUESTION # 100
A cloud security engineer is setting up a cloud-hosted WAF. The engineer needs to implement a solution to protect the multiple websites the organization hosts. The organization websites are:
* www.mycompany.org
* www.mycompany.com
* campus.mycompany.com
* wiki. mycompany.org
The solution must save costs and be able to protect all websites. Users should be able to notify the cloud security engineer of any on-path attacks. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

  • A. Implement self-signed certificates.
  • B. Purchase one wildcard certificate.
  • C. Purchase one certificate for each website.
  • D. Purchase one SAN certificate.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for
*.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.
References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]


NEW QUESTION # 101
An auditor Is reviewing the logs from a web application to determine the source of an Incident. The web application architecture Includes an Internet-accessible application load balancer, anumber of web servers In a private subnet, application servers, and one database server In a tiered configuration. The application load balancer cannot store the logs. The following are sample log snippets:

Which of the following should the auditor recommend to ensure future incidents can be traced back to the sources?

  • A. Store the value of the $_server ( ' REMOTE_ADDR ' ] received by the web servers.
  • B. Enable the x-Forwarded-For header al the load balancer.
  • C. Use stored procedures on the database server.
  • D. Install a certificate signed by a trusted CA.
  • E. Install a software-based HIDS on the application servers.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 102
A SOC analyst received an alert about a potential compromise and is reviewing the following SIEM logs:

Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the SOC analyst to recommend?

  • A. Isolating laptop314 from the network
  • B. Disabling account JDoe to prevent further lateral movement
  • C. Creating HIPS and NIPS rules to prevent logins
  • D. Alerting JDoe about the potential account compromise

Answer: A

Explanation:
The SIEM logs indicate suspicious behavior that could be a sign of a compromise, such as the launching of cmd.exe after Outlook.exe, which is atypical user behavior and could indicate that a machine has been compromised to perform lateral movement within the network. Isolating laptop314 from the network would contain the threat and prevent any potential spread to other systems while further investigation takes place.


NEW QUESTION # 103
An engineer is assisting with the design of a new virtualized environment that will house critical company services and reduce the datacenter's physical footprint. The company has expressed concern about the integrity of operating systems and wants to ensure a vulnerability exploited in one datacenter segment would not lead to the compromise of all others. Which of the following design objectives should the engineer complete to BEST mitigate the company's concerns?
(Choose two.)

  • A. Use a community CSP with independently managed security services
  • B. Deploy to a private cloud with hosted hypervisors on each physical machine
  • C. Employ the use of vTPM with boot attestation
  • D. Leverage separate physical hardware for sensitive services and data
  • E. Deploy virtual desktop infrastructure with an OOB management network

Answer: D,E


NEW QUESTION # 104
A security engineer has learned that terminated employees' accounts are not being disabled. The termination dates are updated automatically in the human resources information system software by the appropriate human resources staff. Which of the following would best reduce risks to the organization?

  • A. Automating a process to disable the accounts by integrating Active Directory and human resources information systems
  • B. Exporting reports from the system on a weekly basis to disable terminated employees' accounts
  • C. Granting permission to human resources staff to mark terminated employees' accounts as disabled
  • D. Configuring allowed login times for all staff to only work during business hours

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best way to reduce the risk of terminated employees' accounts not being disabled is to automate the process by integrating Active Directory (AD) with the human resources information system (HRIS). By automating this integration, when an employee's termination date is updated in the HRIS, the corresponding account in AD is automatically disabled, reducing the risk of accounts being left active after an employee leaves the organization. CASP+ highlights the importance of automating security processes, especially for user access management, to minimize human error and ensure timely action.
References:
* CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 - Enterprise Security Operations (Automation of User Access Management)
* CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Integration of HR Systems and Active Directory for Account Management


NEW QUESTION # 105
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CompTIA CAS-004 is an advanced level certification exam that validates the skills and knowledge of IT professionals in cybersecurity. CAS-004 exam is designed for those who are seeking to advance their careers in the field of cybersecurity by demonstrating their ability to configure and implement security solutions that protect against various cyber threats. CAS-004 exam is intended for security professionals with at least 5 years of experience in the field.


CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification is a globally recognized certification that validates advanced-level security skills and knowledge. It is designed for experienced IT professionals who want to advance their careers in the field of cybersecurity. The CASP+ certification exam, also known as the CAS-004 exam, is the latest version of the CompTIA CASP certification, which was first introduced in 2011.

 

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